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In 2016, more than half the countries in the world had gross domestic products of less than
$40 billion U.S. dollars. Does this mean that the billionaires in this graph are wealthier
individually than almost half the countries in the world? Why or why not?

In 2016 more than half the countries in the world had gross domestic products of less than 40 billion US dollars Does this mean that the billionaires in this gr class=

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This fact does indeed mean that the billionaires in the graph are wealthier than almost half the countries in the world.

The Gross Domestic Product (GDP) is an economic measure that:

  • is used to estimate the wealth of a nation.
  • is calculated as the total value of the production of final goods and services in a country.

A country's wealth is therefore based on its GDP so if a person is worth more than the GDP of a country, that person is richer than the country in question.

This means that the billionaires in this graph are wealthier than all nations with a less than $40 billion GDP.

In conclusion we can therefore say that the billionaires in this graph are wealthier than almost half the nations in the world.

For more information look at https://brainly.com/question/14768180.

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