Answer:
A) the probability that the asset will pay well is 51.16% and the probability that it pays poorly is 48.84%.
B) She should not invest in the asset because the expected value = the price asset, there is no expected profit.
Explanation:
There are 2 probable returns:
since the principal = $20,000, and the expected value = $20,000, the expected value equation would be:
45,000p + 2,000(1 - p) = 20,000
45,000 + 2,000 - 2,000p = 20,000
43,000p = 22,000
p = 0.5116 or 51.16%
1 - p = 48.84%