Same as previous question, consider a sequential pay cmo that is backed by 100 mortgages with average balance of $150,000 each. The mortgages have monthly payments with wam = 30years and wac = 6%. There is a servicing fee rate of 0. 4% and prepayment is according to 150% psa. Tranche a holds $6,000,000 of the mortgage pool principal at origination, tranche b holds $3,000,000 and tranche z holds $5,000,000. The rest of the pool principal is held by the spv as a residual. The spv has set a pass-through rate (coupon rate net of the servicer/guarantee fee) of 4% for tranche a, 4. 5% for tranche b and 5% for tranche z. What is the cash flow to the residual tranche in month 1?.